Um, it’s a question I got from a list. It’s a bit tough. Why?
Well, without exception all Christians believe that Jesus Christ is, was and always will be God. The word incarnation is talking about Jesus, God, taking on human form and coming to dwell amongst us in the flesh. Omnipresence by definition is the property of being present everywhere, it’s a property possessed by God, which is why David rhetorically asks the question in Psalm 139:
Well David, you can’t. But you knew that, that’s why it’s rhetorical.
So, if Jesus is God then he must be omnipresent right? But if he was a man, dwelling amongst us, how did that work out?
Stumped? Did you really think that all the things of God were going to be simple?
Um, now I might completely mess this up. I’m comfortable being wrong, correct me.
Jesus is both God and man (Colossians 2:9). As a man he has a place. Right now it’s in heaven at His father’s right hand (Hebrews 1:1 – 3). But as God he can simultaneously be everywhere. Maybe an example? Matthew 28 is the end of the story. Things are wrapping up. Jesus is saying final farewells before He ascends into heaven. He, the man, will no longer be on earth. But at the same time, He, God, gives this finally goodbye promise:
I am with you always. Jesus in heavan and Jesus everywhere. It’s called the hypostatic union of Christ and can be summed up as “Jesus is both fully human and fully divine, that there is no mixture or dilution of either nature, and that He is one united Person, forever.”
No I don’t understand all of it either. But I do believe it.
What about you? If you’re technical by nature then: veiled or emptied?